Developmental Disturbance — Previous Year Questions
CHAPTER: Developmental Disturbances of Oral and Paraoral Structures
SECTION: Developmental Disturbances of the Jaws, Lips, and Palate
SUBSECTION: Agnathia, Micrognathia, and Macrognathia
Q1) The syndrome which consists of cleft palate, micrognathia and glossoptosis is known as
a) Marfan’s syndrome
b) Crouzon’s syndrome
c) Paget’s disease
d) PierreRobin syndrome
(MAN-2K)
Q2) Pierre Robin syndrome is associated with:
a) Micrognathia
b) Cleft of the lip and palate
c) Tetralogy of fallot
d) Syndactally
(AIPG-05)
Q3) Apertognathia is
a) Open bite
b) Maxilla
c) Deep bite
d) Buccal non-occlusion
(AIIMS MAY 2021)
SUBSECTION: Congenital Facial Defects (Clefts and Syndromes)
Q4) In Treacher collin’s syndrome there is:
a) Upward sloping of the palpebral fissure
b) Poorly developed or absence of malar bones
c) Progenia and mandibular prognathism
d) No loss of hearing
(PGI DEC-2013)
Q5) The most common congenital defect of the face and jaws is
a) Macrostomia
b) Fetal alcohol syndrome
c) Cleft lip and palate
d) Ectodermal dysplasia
(COMEDK-07)
Q6) According to Veau’s classification of cleft lip & palate, isolated cleft palate falls under:
a) Group I
b) Group II
c) Group III
d) Group IV
(PGI-2011)
Q7) A child has marked difference of crown, root size, eruption pattern of left & right side of jaw. The condition is:
a) Crouzan syndrome
b) Hemifacial hypertrophy.
c) Cherubism
d) Achondroplasia
(NEET-2013)
Q8) Most characteristic feature of mandibulofacial dysostosis is
a) Normal hearing
b) Normal vision with coloboma
c) Mandibular prognathism
d) Vertical maxillary excess
(AIIMS MAY-13)
Q9) How will you differentiate between fibrous dysplasia and facial hemiatrophy?
a) Size of the face
b) Distance between the anatomical soft tissue landmarks from midline
c) Shape, size and difference in eruption pattern of teeth
d) Shape of tooth and supporting structures
(AIPG-14)
SUBSECTION: Abnormalities of Dental Arch Relations
Q10) A bony hard asymptomatic swelling found on the midline of the hard palate, that appears radiopaque on a radiograph is most likely a –
a) Odontoma
b) Myxoma
c) Bone cyst
d) Torus palatinus
(AIPG-04)
Q11) The torus mandibularis most commonly seen in the region of:
a) Incisor region
b) Canine region
c) Molar region
d) Premolar region
(AIPG-06)
Q12) Which condition is depicted in the CT picture given below?
a) Mandibular tori
b) Torus palatinus
c) Complex odontoma
d) Sialolithiasis
(APPG-15)
SECTION: Developmental Disturbances of Oral Mucosa and Gingiva
SUBSECTION: Fordyce’s Granules
Q13) Fordyce’s spots are:
a) Fat tissue embedded in buccal mucosa
b) Red spots
c) Present on the cheek mucosa lateral to angle of the mouth
d) Fordyce spots.
(KAR-2003)
Q14) Ectopic sebaceous glands in the mouth are called:
a) Linea alba buccalis
b) Heck’s disease
c) Lingual varices
d) Fordyce spots.
(AIPG-93, AIIMS -91, 99)
Q15) Fordyce granules mostly occurs in all of the following areas EXCEPT
a) Vermillion of the lip
b) Posterior tonsillar pillar
c) Alveolar ridge
d) Palate
(KAR-2013)
Q16) Fordyce’s granules:
a) Fat tissue embedded in buccal mucosa
b) Red spots
c) Present on cheek mucosa lateral to angle of the mouth
d) All of the above
(PGI JUNE-2017)
SUBSECTION: Focal Epithelial Hyperplasia (Heck’s Disease)
Q17) Heck’s disease is another name for
a) Focal epithelial hyperplasia
b) Hereditary intestinal polyposis syndrome
c) Oral melanotic macule
d) Fibromatosis gingiva
(AIPG-06, 10)
SUBSECTION: Pigmentation Disorders
Q18) Laugier-Hunziker syndrome is associated with
a) Idiopathic macular oral hyperpigmentation
b) Multiple impacted supernumerary teeth
c) Ankyloglossia
d) Hemifacial atrophy
(AIIMS-96)
SUBSECTION: Gingival Swellings and Anomalies
Q19) A swelling of a single papilla of the gingiva is often called as
a) Plasma cell gingivitis
b) ANUG
c) Epulis
d) Fibromatosis gingivae
(KERALA -2016)
Q20) PARULIS is an inflammatory enlargement seen in
a) End of sinus tract
b) Extraction socket
c) Due to irritation from calculus/over-hanging restoration
d) None of the above
(AP-06)
SECTION: Developmental Disturbances of the Tongue
SUBSECTION: Aglossia, Microglossia, and Macroglossia
Q21) Bifid tongue, a congenital anomaly occurs due to non- fusion of:
a) Tuberculum impar and lateral lingual swellings
b) Hypobranchial eminence and tuberculum impar
c) The two lateral lingual swellings
d) Some of the above
(AIIMS-2K)
Q22) Smooth, diffuse enlargement of tongue is seen in:
a) Lymphangioma
b) Beckwith Widman syndrome
c) Amyloidosis
d) Neurofibromatosis
(PGI JUNE-2017)
SUBSECTION: Ankyloglossia
Q23) True ankyloglossia occurs as a result of
a) Union between tongue and floor of mouth/ventral surface of tongue
b) Absence of lingual frenum
c) Lingual frenum attached to the tip of tongue
d) Short lingual frenum
(MAN-2K)
SUBSECTION: Fissured Tongue (Scrotal Tongue)
Q24) Facial edema, cheilitis granulomatosa and a fissured tongue characterize which of the following syndromes?
a) Frey
b) Melkerson-Rosenthal
c) Treacher Collins
d) None of the above
(ΜΑΝ-97, AP-2013)
SUBSECTION: Median Rhomboid Glossitis
Q25) A patient notices a well demarcated area of depapillation on his tongue which has been there for as long as he can remember. The most probable diagnosis:
a) Median rhomboid glossitis
b) Geographic tongue
c) Black hairy tongue
d) Moeller’s glossitis
(ΜΑΝ-2001)
Q26) Median rhomboid glossitis is associated with:
a) Oral cancer
b) Fungal infection
c) Leukoplakia
d) Burning sensation of tongue
(AIIMS-99)
Q27) Median rhomboid glossitis is associated with:
a) Burning mouth syndrome
b) Fungal infection
c) Bacterial infection
d) Absence of filiform papillae
(AIIMS -96, 97)
SUBSECTION: Benign Migratory Glossitis (Geographic Tongue)
Q28) In erythema migrans, which papilla of tongue are absent:
a) Fungiform.
b) Foliate.
c) Filliform.
d) Circumvallate
(MAN-97)
Q29) Geographic tongue, all are true except:
a) Lesions may be Bilaterally symmetrical on tongue
b) No treatment is required
c) Is a Precancerous condition
d) May be related to emotional stress
(AIPG-2002)
Q30) Geographic tongue is of red colour because of
a) Infiltration of eosinophils
b) Infiltration of neutrophils
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
(PGI-2011)
SUBSECTION: Hairy Tongue
Q31) Prolonged administration of broad spectrum antibiotics results in the formation of:
a) Black hairy tongue
b) Median rhomboid glossitis
c) Geographic tongue
d) Fissured tongue
(KAR-2K)
Q32) Hairy tongue is characterized by hypertrophy of
a) fungiform papillae
b) foliate papillae
c) filiform papillae
d) circumvallate papillae.
(KAR-2002)
SUBSECTION: Lingual Thyroid and Tonsils
Q33) Lingual tonsils arise:
a) As developmental anomalies
b) From carcinomatous transformation
c) As a result of hyperplasia
d) Due to repeated trauma in the area
(AIPG-94, 97)
Q34) Failure of descent of thyroid analage can be seen in the tongue
a) In anterior 2/3 of dorsal aspect
b) In posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect
c) Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum
d) In anterior 2/3 of inferior surface
(KCET-07)
SECTION: Developmental Disturbances in Size and Shape of Teeth
SUBSECTION: Disturbances in Size (Microdontia/Macrodontia)
Q35) True generalized microdontia is characterized by
a) Small teeth with large jaws
b) Large teeth with small jaws
c) Smaller teeth than the normal
d) None
(ΜΑΝ-2001)
Q36) Microdontia is most commonly seen affecting:
a) Max. lateral incisor
b) Mand. second premolar
c) Mand. central incisor
d) Mand. first premolar
(AIPG-2002)
SUBSECTION: Gemination and Fusion
Q37) Gemination of teeth occur due to
a) Division of a single tooth bud after calcification
b) Division of a single tooth bud before calcification
c) Fusion of two teeth before calcification
d) Fusion of two teeth after calcification
(ΜΑΝ-2001)
Q38) Fusion of teeth is more common in-
a) Primary dentition
b) Permanent dentition
c) Mixed dentition
d) None of the above.
(KERALA-2015)
Q39) A 4-year old child has less number of teeth and lateral incisors with bifurcated roots with two root canals is called:
a) Dilaceration
b) Concrescence
c) Fusion
d) Gemination
(PGI-2K)
Q40) Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred as
a) Gemination
b) Twinning
c) Concrescence
d) Fusion
(COMEDK-05)
Q41) A 4 year old child with one tooth less than the normal dentition shows a large tooth with two crowns and two root canals, the anamoly is:
a) Dilaceration
b) Fusion
c) Gemination
d) Concrescence
(AIIMS-2011)
SUBSECTION: Concrescence and Dilaceration
Q42) A union of the roots of adjacent teeth through the cementum is referred to as
a) Concrescence
b) Fusion
c) Gemination
d) None of the above
(AIPG-05, PGI-02)
Q43) The term dilaceration refers to
a) A deformity of a tooth consisting of a sharp bend fr 30 the root
b) Abrasions on two surfaces of a single tooth
c) A root or tooth that is split into two
d) A tooth that is fractured at two or more places
(ΜΑΝ-94)
Q44) A patient wants replacement of his extracted mandibular first molar. Dentist takes IOPA & accidentally found adjacent premolar’s root was rounded & blunted at apex, PDL was intact & with intact lamina dura. The diagnosis is
a) Cemental tear
b) Hypercementosis
c) Dilaceration
d) Cementoma
(AIPG 2020)
SUBSECTION: Talon Cusp and Dens Evaginatus
Q45) Talon’s cusp is characteristic of which syndrome
a) Edward’s syndrome
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome
d) Down’s syndrome
(COMEDK-04)
Q46) A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except.
a) Mohr’s syndrome
b) Sturge-Weber Syndrome
c) Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome
d) Proteus Syndrome
(AIIMS-09)
Q47) Patient is experiencing sensitivity which diagnosis is shown in radiograph
a) Talon cusp
b) Dens Invaginatous
c) Dens Evaginatus
d) Enamel Pearl
(AIPG-2022)
SUBSECTION: Dens Invaginatus (Dens in Dente)
Q48) A deep pit lined by enamel seen in the lingual surface of Maxillary lateral incisor is most likely to be
a) Dens in dente
b) Enamel Hypoplasia
c) Talon’s cusp
d) Enamel Pearl
(AIPG-92, AIIMS-90)
Q49) A dens in dente is usually caused by:
a) An abnormal proliferation of pulp tissue
b) Denticle formation within the pulp tissue
c) A deep invagination of the enamel organ during formation
d) A supernumerary tooth bud enclaved within a normal tooth.
(AIIMS-92)
Q50) Dense in dente is most commonly seen in:
a) Premolars
b) Paramolars
c) Lateral incisors
d) Maxillary canine
(AIPG-06)
Q51) Supernumerary tooth, tooth within tooth is most commonly seen in?
a) Max. lateral incisors
b) Mandibular 2nd premolar
c) Mandibular incisors
d) Maxillary central and lateral incisors
(AIPG-14)
SUBSECTION: Taurodontism
Q52) Taurodontism is characterized by:
a) Hypercementosis
b) Elongated wide pulp canals and short roots
c) Obliterated pulp chambers with secondary dentine deposition
d) Rootless teeth with thin shell of enamel
(AIPG-06)
Q53) Taurodontism is usually seen in:
a) Mesiodens
b) Incisor with talon/cusp
c) Mandibular 1st molar
d) Maxillary premolars
(AIPG-06)
Q54) Taurodontism is seen in
a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Sturge weber syndrome
c) Down syndrome
d) Turner syndrome
(AIPG-10)
Q55) Based on the degree to which apical displacement of the pulpal floor is seen, “Cynodont” is the name given to
a) Hypotaurodont
b) Mesotaurodont
c) Hypertaurodont
d) Normal tooth
(AP-10)
SUBSECTION: Enamel Pearls (Enameloma)
Q56) True about enameloma
a) A globule like structure usually found on root due to misplaced ameloblast
b) True neoplasm of ameloblast
c) Tumor resembling enamel present on gingiva
d) Tumor of ameloblast which fall to differentiate terminally
(AIIMS MAY-14)
SECTION: Developmental Disturbances in Number of Teeth
SUBSECTION: Anodontia and Hypodontia
Q57) Most common missing tooth in the permanent dentition is:
a) Maxillary canine
b) Maxillary first molar
c) Mand. 2nd premolar
d) Mandibular first molar
(AIIMS-98, 01)
Q58) False about anodontia:
a) May involve both the deciduous and the permanent dentition
b) In false anodontia tooth doesn’t undergo full development
c) May involve a single tooth
d) In total anodontia all teeth are missing
(AIIMS-95)
Q59) Anodontia affects the growth of:
a) Maxilla
b) Mandible
c) Alveolar bone
d) Cranium
(KAR-90)
Q60) In children the most frequently missing permanent teeth are:
a) First premolars
b) Second premolars
c) Max. lateral incisors
d) Mandibular lateral incisors
(KAR-2001)
Q61) Which of the following teeth is most likely to be congenitally missing?
a) Maxi. central incisor
b) Mandibular canine
c) Mand. 2nd premolar
d) Max. 1st premolar
(AIPG-05)
Q62) In hypodontia, the most commonly affected tooth is
a) Permanent 3rd molar
b) Permanent second premolar
c) Permanent LI
d) Permanent Canine
(COMEDK-14)
Q63) Hypodontia is mainly found in all, except:
a) Papillon levitra syndrome
b) Osteopetrosis
c) Cleidocranial dysostosis
d) Ectodermal dysplasia
(ΝΕΕΤ-2013)
SUBSECTION: Supernumerary Teeth (Hyperdontia)
Q64) The most common supernumerary tooth form is
a) Tuberculated
b) Conical
c) Screw shaped
d) Incisor shaped
(AP-2K)
Q65) All are true about supernumerary tooth except:
a) May have resemblance to normal teeth
b) Disto molars doesn’t resemble any other tooth
c) Mesiodens is the most common supernumerary tooth.
d) More common in mandible
(KAR-99)
Q66) The 2nd common most supernumerary teeth is
a) Mesiodens
b) Distal to 3rd molar in maxilla
c) Distal to mand. 3rd molar
d) Para molars
(PGI-95)
Q67) Which of the following dentitions shows the highest frequency of ocurrence of supernumerary teeth ?
a) Maxillary deciduous
b) Maxillary permanent
c) Mandibular deciduous
d) Mandibular permanent
(AIPG-06)
Q68) The condition highlighted by the arrow in the occlusal radiograph in a 8 year old child could be due to
a) Non-vital tooth
b) Impacted tooth
c) Ghost tooth
d) Mesiodens
(APPG-15)
Q69) Identify the following condition
a) Supernumerary teeth
b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Hypo mineralization
d) Enamel hypoplasia
(AIPG-2021)
Q70) Patient said I have caries. on examination the dentist found an anomaly above apices. Identify the structure
a) Paramolars
b) Mesiodens
c) Disto Dens
d) Peridens syndrome
(AIPG-2022)
SECTION: Developmental Disturbances in Structure of Teeth (Enamel)
SUBSECTION: Amelogenesis Imperfecta (AI)
Q71) Enamel Hypo-calcification and hypo-maturation of tooth is seen in?
a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Trichodento-osseus syndrome
d) Turner tooth
(KAR-06)
Q72) Amelogenesis imperfecta is a disorder of:
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Ecto and Mesoderm
(NEET-2013)
Q73) Amelogenesis imperfecta, the feature not typically found is?
a) Enamel hypoplasia
b) Scanty enamel with distant rods.
c) Condylar hypoplasia
d) Difference in male and female siblings.
(PGI JUNE-2017)
SUBSECTION: Environmental Enamel Hypoplasia (Turner’s, Fluorosis, Syphilis)
Q74) Peg-shaped incisors which taper towards the incisal edge are typically seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
a) Congenital syphilis
b) Rickets
c) Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
d) Supernumerary teeth
(MAN-94, AIIMS-93)
Q75) Developing Ameloblasts are affected by the ingestion of high fluoride content water resulting in
a) Turners tooth
b) Hutchinson’s teeth
c) Mottled enamel
d) Moon’s molars
(ΜΑΝ-98)
Q76) A permanent tooth with a local hypoplastic deformity in a crown is called
a) Turner’s tooth
b) Taurodontism
c) Enameloma
d) Ghost teeth
(ΜΑΝ-2001)
Q77) Hypoplastic defects in permanent central and lateral incisors are likely to result due to severe illness or other factors during:
a) First 9 months of life
b) First 2 years of life
c) First month of life
d) Two or three years of life
(AIPG-95)
Q78) Turners tooth is seen in
a) enamel hypoplasia due to hypocalcemia
b) enamel hypoplasia due to birth injuries
c) enamel hypoplasia due to congenital syphilis
d) enamel hypoplasia due to local infection or local trauma
(KAR-98)
Q79) Which of the following dental sequel is likely in child with a history of generalized growth failure (failure to thrive) in the first 6 months of life:
a) Retrusive maxilla
b) Enamel hypoplasia
c) Retrusive Mandible
d) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
(AIPG-91)
Q80) Hutchinson’s incisors are present in:
a) Congenital syphilis
b) Tertiary syphilis
c) Secondary syphilis
d) Acquired syphilis
(AIIMS-01, KAR-01)
Q81) Turner’s hypoplasia most commonly affects:
a) Deciduous maxillary anteriors
b) Deciduous mandibular anteriors
c) Permanent maxillary anteriors
d) Permanent mandibular anteriors
(AIPG-2003)
Q82) Which of the following is unlikely to cause enamel hypoplasia?
a) Rickets
b) Fluoride
c) Congenital syphilis
d) Cleidocranial dysostosis
(KAR-01)
Q83) Developmental enamel defects are most commonly seen in
a) Primary incisors
b) Primary 2nd molar
c) Permanent incisors
d) Permanent 1st molar
(PGI-2011)
Q84) A 7-year-old child having yellowish discoloured spot of maxillary centrai incisor. His mother presents a history of injury to deciduous tooth 3 years back with recurrent infections & swelling. The diagnosis is
a) Turners hypoplasia
b) Generalised dental fluorosis
c) Syphillitic hypoplasia
d) Rickets hypomineralisation
(AIIMS MAY 2012)
Q85) Which of the following can be seen in hereditary hypoplasia?
a) all deciduous and permanent teeth would be affected
b) few of deciduous and permanent teeth would be affected
c) only permanent teeth would be affected
d) All deciduous teeth would be affected
(AIPG-2022)
Q86) A 12yr boy came with the complaint of hypoplasia of 1st permanent PM & there was previous history of multiple alveolar abscess formation w.r.t primary Zná molar. Most common diagnosis is
a) Turners Hypoplasia
b) Infection related hypoplasia
c) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
d) Amelogenesis imperfecta
(AIIMS NOV-2021)
SECTION: Developmental Disturbances in Structure of Teeth (Dentin)
SUBSECTION: Dentinogenesis Imperfecta (DI)
Q87) Absence of pulp chambers is seen in
a) Craniofacial dysostosis
b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Amelogenesis imperfecta
d) Any of the above
(PGI-2K)
Q88) Dentinogenesis imperfecta differs from amelogenesis imperfecta in that, the former is:
a) A hereditary disturbance
b) The result of excessive fluoride ingestion
c) The result of faulty enamel matrix formation
d) Characterized by calcification of pulp chambers and the root canals of the teeth
(AIPG-2002)
Q89) Dentinogenesis imperfecta is:
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) Sex linked recessive
d) Not a inheritable trait
(AIPG-95)
Q90) A 4-year-old child has a normal complement of primary teeth, but they are gray and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. Most likely this condition is:
a) Neonatal hypoplasia
b) Amelogenesis imperfecta
c) Cleidocranial dysplasia
d) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
(COMED-14)
Q91) Shell teeth are more common in this variant of dentinogenesis imperfecta:
a) Type I
b) Type III
c) Type II
d) Type III and I
(AIPG-2003)
Q92) Complete obliteration of pulp is seen in all except:
a) Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta
b) Type II dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Type III dentinogenesis imperfecta
d) Dentin dysplasia
(AIPG-2003)
Q93) A girl suffering from browning of teeth, wearing of enamel but not cavitory. OPG shows obliteration of pulp with narrowing of canal & deposition of secondary dentin, she gave the history that out of her 4 brothers, 2 are suffering from the same disease. She is suffering from
a) Amelogenesis imperfecta
b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Fluorosis
d) Odontodysplasia
(AIIMS-2011)
Q94) Dentinogenesis Imperfecta is related to:
a) DSPP
b) Dentin dysplasia
c) Ectodermal dysplasia
d) Regional odontodysplasia
(PGI JUNE-2017)
Q95) Mutation in DSPP gene is associated with?
a) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
b) Dentin dysplasia
c) Both of above
d) None
(AIPG-2019)
SUBSECTION: Dentin Dysplasia
Q96) Thistle-tube appearance of pulp chamber is a feature of:
a) Coronal dentin dysplasia
b) Regional odontodysplasia
c) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
d) Amelogenesis imperfecta
(COMEDK-06)
Q97) The histological appearance of “lava following around boulders in dentin dysplasia” suggests
a) Attempt to repair the defective dentin
b) Abrupt arrest to dentin formation in crown
c) Abnormal dentin formation in a disorganized fashion
d) Cascades of dentin to form root
(AP-08)
Q98) Marked reduction in amount of dentin, widening of predentin layer, presence of large area of interglobular dentin and irregular pattern of dentin is seen in
a) Hypocalcified dentin
b) Odonto dysplasia
c) Dentin dysplasia
d) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
(AIIMS MAY 2012)
SUBSECTION: Regional Odontodysplasia
Q99) Ghost teeth is seen in which of the following
a) Dens is dent
b) Regional odontodysplasia
c) Dentin dysplasia
d) None of the above.
(ΜΑΝ-2002)
Q100) Odontodysplasia is most common in:
a) Mandibular premolar
b) Mandibular canine
c) Mandibular third molar
d) Maxillary central incisor
(KERALA-2015)
Q101) Large pulp chambers are characteristic of all the following conditions except
a) Shell teeth
b) Tauraodontisam
c) Odonto dysplasia
d) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
(COMEDK-06)
Q102) Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers?
a) Amelogenesis imperfecta
b) Regional odontodysplasia
c) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
d) Dentinal dysplasia type I
(APPSC-99)
SECTION: Disturbances in Eruption of Teeth
SUBSECTION: Premature and Delayed Eruption
Q103) Teeth that erupt with in 30 days of birth are called
a) Natal teeth
b) Neonatal teeth
c) Primary teeth
d) Prenatal teeth
(AIPG-2002)
Q104) Delayed eruption of at least part of the dentition is a recognized feature of all of the following except:
a) Rickets
b) Congenital hyperthyroidism
c) Cleidocranial dysplasia
d) Cherubism
(AIIMS-93, KAR -2K)
Q105) Failure of eruption of teeth in familial cases is most commonly due to mutation in this gene
a) PTHR1
b) MSX1
c) PAX 9
d) RAS
(AIIMS DEC-2020)
Q106) Delayed tooth eruption is not seen in
a) cerebral palsy
b) Neuralgia
c) Hypothyroidism
d) cleidocranial dysplasia
(AIIMS MAY 2021)
SUBSECTION: Ankylosis
Q107) Most commonly submerged tooth is
a) Mand. primary 1st molar
b) Mand. primary 2nd molar
c) Maxi. primary Ist molar
d) Maxi. primary 2nd molar
(AP-99)
Q108) Submerged teeth are
a) Ankylosed teeth
b) Unerupted teeth
c) Impacted teeth
d) Intruded teeth
(COMEDK-07)
SECTION: Developmental Cysts of the Orofacial Region
SUBSECTION: Gingival Cysts of the Newborn
Q109) Bohn’s nodules are
a) Cystic swellings in neonates
b) Cysts associated with soft palate
c) Cysts of gingiva in growing children
d) Warts on the tongue
(KAR-98, COMEDK-05)
Q110) Epstein pearls are cysts that arise from:
a) Squamous tissue of the mucosa
b) Connective tissue of the mucosa
c) Rests of malassez
d) Dental lamina
(PGI-95)
Q111) Epstein pearls are:
a) Gingival cyst of newborn
b) Gingival cyst of adult
c) Enamel pearls
d) Epithelial rests
(AIIMS-95)
Q112) Identify which of the following is seen in the photograph.
a) Bohn’s nodule
b) Epstein pearls
c) Gingival cyst of new born
d) Alveolar cyst
(AIPG-2021)
SUBSECTION: Nasopalatine and Globulomaxillary Cysts
Q113) Globulomaxillary cyst is
a) Soft tissue cyst present often between maxillary Lateral incisor and cuspid teeth.
b) Often present between incisor and cuspid teeth but is a bone cyst
c) A cyst present between the midline of the palate
d) A cyst present in the incisive canal
(ΜΑΝ-97, 98)
Q114) A 15-year-old boy shows an inverted pear shaped radiolucency between maxillary lateral incisor and cuspid teeth. The teeth are normal in all aspects. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Globulomaxillary cyst
b) Nasopalatine cyst
c) Aneurysmal cyst
d) Dentigerous cyst
(AIPG-2001)
Q115) The cyst located at the junction of medial nasal process, lateral nasal process and maxillary process is:
a) Globulomaxillary cyst
b) Median palatine cyst
c) Nasopalatine cyst
d) Nasoalveolar cyst
(AI-05)
Q116) The cyst which is found within the bone at the junction of the globular process, the lateral nasal process & maxillary process is:
a) Naso-alveolar cyst
b) Globulomaxillary cyst
c) Naso palatine cyst
d) Mid palatine cyst
(AIIMS-07)
Q117) Which of the following is most common developmental cyst
a) Nasopalatine cyst
b) Naso-alveolar cyst
c) Globulomaxillary cyst
d) Median palatal cyst
(AIIMS-08)
Q118) Premaxilla-premaxillary cyst
a) Nasoalveolar cyst
b) Nasopalatine cyst
c) Incisive canal
d) Globulomaxillary cyst
(AIPG-2012)
SUBSECTION: Nasolabial (Nasoalveolar) Cyst
Q119) Which of the following features are of naso alveolar cyst
a) An ovoid shaped radiolucency above the lateral incisor and canine teeth
b) Erosion of base above lateral incisor and canine teeth
c) An inverted funnel shaped radiolucent lesion above the roots of lateral incisor and canine teeth
d) A pear shaped radiolucent lesion between roots of lateral incisor and canine teeth.
(ΜΑΝ-97, 98)
Q120) Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst which do not produce any radiographic changes.
a) Nasolabial cyst
b) Nasopalatine cyst
c) Mid alveolar cyst
d) Palatine cyst
(MAN-97, AIIMS-94)
Q121) A 40 year old male patient presents with a painless swelling causing fullness of upper lip and elevation of nostril on left side. The only positive radiographic finding is unilateral elevation of floor of nasal cavity. The probable diagnosis is:
a) Globulomaxillary cyst
b) Polyp in the nasal cavity
c) Radicular cyst
d) Nasolabial cyst
(MHCET-15)
Q122) Naso Labial cyst is thought to arise from
a) Remnants of cell rests of serrae
b) Remnants of cell rests of mallasez
c) Remnants of cell rests of embryonic lacrimal duct
d) Maxillary sinus lining epithelium
(KAR-03)
SUBSECTION: Thyroglossal and Lymphoepithelial Cysts
Q123) Following are true about thyroglossal cyst EXCEPT
a) Often occur in children; they may also present in adults
b) Rarely may contain only functioning thyroid tissue
c) Treated surgically by Sistrunks operation
d) Moves downwards on tongue protrusion
(AIPG-2002)
SUBSECTION: Dermoid and Epidermoid Cysts
Q124) Dermoid cyst is a form of:
a) False cyst
b) Cystic Teratoma
c) Choriostoma
d) Hamartoma
(PGI JUNE-2017)
SUBSECTION: Miscellaneous and Pseudocysts
Q125) Which of the following lesions does not give blood on aspiration
a) Heamangioma
b) Static bone cyst
c) Central giant cell granuloma
d) Aneurysmal bone cyst
(MAN-2002)
Q126) Which of the following is a Fissural cyst is
a) Dentigerous cyst
b) Primordial cyst
c) Nasopalatine cyst
d) Radicular cyst
(AP-2K)
Q127) Static bone cyst is a cyst developing from
a) Infection of Salivary gland in the mandible
b) Tissue of the odontogenic apparatus
c) Tissue of the oral mucosa
d) None of the above
(KAR-2013)
Q128) Cysts associated with vital teeth are:
a) Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary cyst, lateral periodontal cyst, OKC
b) Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary cyst, radicular cyst
c) Dentigerous cyst, OKC, radicular cyst
d) ‘B’ & ‘C’
(COMED-2012)
Q129) A true cyst which is derived from stellate reticulum and grows in place of tooth is known as?
a) Primordial cyst
b) Eruption cyst
c) Dentigerous cyst
d) Radicular cyst
(AIPG-14)
SECTION: Syndromes Affecting the Orofacial Region
SUBSECTION: Disorders of Bone (Cleidocranial, OI, etc.)
Q130) Dental anomaly of teeth associated with defective bone formation is seen in
a) amelogenesis imperfecta
b) dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Odontodysplasia
d) Osteitis deformans
(AIIMS-89)
Q131) Brittle bone syndrome is caused by
a) Improper synthesis of procollagen
b) Polymerisation of collagen
c) Increase osteoclastic activity
d) Increase fibroblastic activity
(KAR-2013)
Q132) Premature exfoliation of primary teeth, large pulp chamber and skeletal deformaties are seen in:
a) Hypophosphtasia
b) Papillon lefevre syndrome
c) Langerhans histiocytosis
d) Down’s syndrome
(PGI JUNE-2017)
Q133) CBFA1 gene involvement is seen in
a) Cleidocranial dysplasia
b) Ectodermal dysplasia
c) Achondrogenesis
d) Ellis-Van Creveld
(AIPG-2019)
Q134) Premature exfoliation of anterior teeth and incomplete root formation
a) hypophosphatasia
b) cleidocranial dysplasia
c) Achondroplasia
d) downs syndrome
(AIPG-2021)
Q135) Which of the following defect is shown in radiograph?
a) Nevoid Basal cell car.
b) Cherubism
c) brown tumour
d) cleidocranial dysplasia
(AIPG-2022)
SUBSECTION: Polyposis Syndromes
Q136) Gardner syndrome does not include:
a) Osteomas
b) Epidermoid cysts
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Impacted permanent teeth
(MAN-2002)
Q137) Multiple osteomas, multiple polyposis, supernumerary teeth are found in
a) Reiter’s syndrome
b) Peutz jeghers syndrome
c) Gardner’s syndrome
d) Behcet’s syndrome
(AP-01, 03, 99)
Q138) Puetz-Jegher syndrome is characterised by
a) Deafness
b) Scleroderma
c) Multiple intestinal polyps
d) Multiple supernumerary teeth
(KCET-09)
Q139) In which of the following are involved all the 3 germ layers
a) Gardner syndrome
b) Neuralgia
c) Stickler syndrome
(AIPG-2022)
SUBSECTION: Craniofacial Syndromes
Q140) Goldenhar syndrome is?
a) Facial deformity, auricular abnormalities and vertebral deformity
b) Facial deformity, auricular abnormalities, vertebral deformity and genital lesion
c) Facial and auricular abnormalities only
d) Auricular abnormalities only
(PGI JUNE-2011)
Q141) Which suture is closed first in Crouzon syndrome
a) Sagittal suture
b) Frontal suture
c) Coronal suture
d) Lambdoid suture
(AIPG-2019)
SUBSECTION: Other Syndromes (Ectodermal Dysplasia, etc.)
Q142) The gene that defines the localization of the tooth germs is
a) Fgf-8
b) Bmp-2
c) Dlx-5
d) Pax-9
(APPG-15)
Q143) Maximum incidence of developmental defects is seen in?
a) Primary incisor
b) Permanent incisors
c) Permanent mandibular first molar
d) Primary mandibular second molar
(PGI DEC-2011)
Q144) A pregnant lady consumed ethyl alcohol during her pregnancy, detivers fetus with fetal alcohot syndrome. Which of the following is seen is the young one?
a) Midface deficiency/ deformity
b) Fetal hemoglobinemia
c) Microcephaly
d) Treacher Collins syndrome
(AIPG 2020)
Q145) Skin disease associated with a triad of abnormal nails, incongenita leukoplakia and reticular pigmentation of skin
a) Dyskeratitis congenita
b) Dyskeratosis follicularis
c) Incongenita pigmenti
d) Congenital keratosis
(AIIMS MAY 2021)
Q146) Most common site for melanotic neuroectodermal tumour of infancy is (MNTI):
a) Maxilla
b) Mandible
c) Ethmoid bone
d) Cervical spine
(AIIMS-2011)
Q147) Which of the following is not hereditary:
a) Amelogenesis imperfecta
b) Cleidocranial dysostosis
c) Regional odontodysplasia
d) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
(AIIMS-92, 99, 03)
Q148) Gene affected in Ectodermal dysplasia
a) ED10
b) PVRL-1
c) p53
d) GJ6
(AIIMS NOV-2021)
TOTAL QUESTIONS ARRANGED = 148